1. Who was the moral philosopher who wrote The Theory of Moral Sentiments as well as The

Wealth of Nations?

a. John Locke

b. John Wesley

c. David Hume

d. Adam Smith

2. Special ethics applies to which of the following?

a. It analyzes hidden presuppositions and brings them to light for critical scrutiny

b. It consists of applying general ethics to particular problems.

c. It analyzes societal practices and their application to particular problems.

d. It consists of studying and describing the morality of a people, culture, or society.

3.Who was the philosopher that condemned usury?

a. Thomas Aquinas

b. Reinhold Niebuhr

c. Adam Smith

d. Immanuel Kant

4. Which of the following describes metaethics?

a. It compares and contrasts different ethical systems, codes, practices, and beliefs.

b. It attempts to form into a related whole the various norms, rules, and values of a society’s morality.

c. It attempts to justify the basic principle of morality.

d. It analyzes hidden presuppositions and brings them to light for critical scrutiny

5. Which of the following is the art of solving difficult problems, cases, or deliberations through

the careful application of moral principles?

a. special effects

b. normative ethics

c. metaethics

d. casuistry

6. A(n) ____________ is a problem, situation, or opportunity requiring an individual, group, or

organization to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong.

a. ethical issue

b. crisis

c. indictment

d. fraud

7. What is the first level of moral development according to Lawrence Kohlberg?

a. Conventional

b. Preconventional

c. Autonomous

d. Postconventional

8. What does it mean for an action to be subjectively right?

a. An action is subjectively right if it is in conformity with the moral law.

b. An action is subjectively right if a person believes that the action is moral.

c. An action is subjectively right if it promotes the greater good.

d. An action is subjectively right if it advances one’s own self-interest.

9. What does it mean for an action to be objectively right?

a. An action is objectively right if a person believes that the action is moral.

b. An action is objectively right if it is in conformity with the moral law.

c. An action is objectively right if it advances one’s own self-interest.

d. An action is objectively right if it promotes the greater good.

10. What is the name given to philosophers who attempt to use only one ethical approach to

ethical questions?

a. ethical pluralists.

b. utilitarians

c. deontologists

d. ethical monists.

11. What is the name given to philosophers who construct their ethical approaches with mixed

approaches?

a. ethical pluralists.

b. utilitarians

c. ethical monists.

d. deontologists

12. Which level in Kohlberg’s is the least attained?

a. first level

b. third level

c. second level

d. fourth level

13. Consequentialism belongs to which sort of ethical approach?

a. deontological

b. special

c. theological

d. teleological

14. The ethical approach that maintains that what has to be calculated is not pleasure or

happiness but all intrinsically valuable human goods, which include friendship, knowledge,

and a host of other goods valuable in themselves

a. ideal utilitarianism

b. hedonistic utilitarianism

c. eudaimonistic utilitarianism

d. all of these

15. Which of the following is NOT a step to be taken in a utilitarian analysis?

a. Identify all those who are directly and indirectly affected by the action.

b. Consider, imaginatively, whether there are various alternatives other than simply doing

or not doing the action, and carry out a similar analysis for each of the other alternative actions.

c. Specify only the good consequences of the action for those directly affected.

d. Carry out a similar analysis, if necessary, for those indirectly affected, as well as

for society as a whole.

16. Which of the following was a hedonistic utilitarian that argued that we should consider

intensity, duration, certainty, propinquity, and fecundity when performing an analysis?

a. John Stuart Mill

b. Jeremy Bentham

c. Immanuel Kant

d. John Rawls

17. When faced with the temptation to break a contract, we are always concerned with a

particular contract in a particular set of circumstances. To determine the morality of the

action, we should calculate the effects of breaking this particular contract. Which sort of

utilitarianism is represented here?

a. Rule-utilitarianism

b. Deontological-utilitarianism

c. Theological-utilitarianism

d. Act-utilitarianism

18. Which of the following common business practices is roughly analogous to the utility calculus?

a. Cost-benefit analysis

b. Marketing research

c. Public relations

d. System analysis

19. The Myth of Amoral Business is consistent with which of the following?

a. Business and people in business are immoral.

b. Businesses and people in business are not explicitly concerned with ethics.

c. Businesses and people in business are inherently ethical.

d. Businesses and people in business are unethical.

20. For someone in the Kantian tradition, to be moral is the same as being which of the

following?

a. Emotional

b. Free

c. Rational

d. Obedient

21. Which of the following is a formalistic ethical approach?

a. The moral law specifies precisely what the right actions must contain.

b. The moral law contains both formal elements and content for moral actions.

c. The moral law does not state what content an action must have to be a right action.

d. The moral law contains only the content of the action that is right.

22. Which of the following is NOT a condition for an action to be considered a moral action?

a. It must take into consideration the particular circumstances.

b. It must be amenable to being made consistently universal.

c. It must respect rational beings as ends in themselves.

d. It must stem from, and respect, the autonomy of rational beings

23. According to Kant, all people should be treated in which of the following ways?

a. As a means, if the end is desired

b. As an end in themselves

c. As a means to an end

d. As an end as long as the means are considered

24. According to Kant, the first form of the Categorical Imperative is which of the following?

a. Act so that you treat humanity, whether in your own person or in that of another,

always as an end and never as a means only.

b. Act only in that way that you would want another to act toward you.

c. Act only according to that maxim by which you can at the same time will that it should

become a universal law

d. Act only so that the will through its maxims could regard itself at the same time as

universally lawgiving.

25. According to Kant, the second form of the Categorical Imperative is which of the following?

a. Act only according to that maxim by which you can at the same time will that it should become a universal law.

b. Act only in that way that you would want another to act toward you.

c. Act so that you treat humanity, whether in your own person or in that of another, always as an end and never as a means only.

d. Act only so that the will through its maxims could regard itself at the same time as universally lawgiving.

Text:

26. Which of the following is NOT captured by the notion of autonomy?

a. Freedom

b. The universal acceptability of the moral law

c. The self-imposition of the law

d. The external imposition of the law

27. According to Kant, the third form of the Categorical Imperative is which of the following?

a. Act so that you treat humanity, whether in your own person or in that of another, always as an end and never as a means only.

b. Act only in that way that you would want another to act toward you.

c. Act only according to that maxim by which you can at the same time will that it should become a universal law.

d. Act only so that the will through its maxims could regard itself at the same time as

universally lawgiving.

28. Which of the following are strictly legal rights?

a. Civil rights

b. Positive rights

c. Negative rights

d. Special rights

29. Which of the following rights involves the punishment due a law-breaker or evildoer?

a. Distributive justice

b. Commulative justice

c. Retributive justice

d. Procedural justice

30. Sound judgment involves all except which of the following?

a. Moral luck

b. Experience

c. A well-developed moral sense

d. Careful deliberation

31. Which of the following is the highest virtue for Aristotle?

a. Justice

b. Courage

c. Wisdom

d. Generosity

32. Which of the following would be the conclusion a virtue ethicist might make of one who reacts to strong temptation by frequently giving in to it?

a. The person has an excellent character.

b. The person has a weak character.

c. The person has a strong character.

d. The person has an immoral character.

33. Which of the following would be the conclusion a virtue ethicist might make of one who reacts to strong temptation by habitually giving in to it?

a. The person has an excellent character.

b. The person has an immoral character.

c. The person has a strong character.

d. The person has a weak character.

34. Which of the following would be the conclusion a virtue ethicist might make of one who reacts to strong temptation by habitually resisting?

a. The person has an immoral character.

b. The person has a weak character.

c. The person has a morally good character.

d. The person has great moral luck. 

35. Which of the following is a good definition of the virtues?

a. The virtues are characterized by the habit of going along with the majority.

b. The virtues are skills of discerning the rules and obeying them.

c. The virtues are skills of excellence in the art of living in society with others.

d. The virtues are characterized by emphasizing the ends over the means.

36. Which of the following describes a moral ideal?

a. A pleasure or happiness

b. A goal toward which we can strive

c A disposition

d. A talent or ability

37. Which of the following is necessary for sound moral action on a virtue view?

a. Moral luck

b. An attention paid to the means

c. Strong emotional commitments

d. Sound moral judgment

38. All actions by nations or companies involves, first and foremost, which of the following?

a. Actions by corporate entities

b. Actions by legislative bodies

c. Actions by individuals

d. Actions by nation states

39. For a virtue ethicist, which of the following would be why bribery would be considered wrong?

a. It is contrary to developing good character.

b. It is not universalizable.

c. It treats peoples as means to an end.

d. It does not bring about the greatest good.

40. Which of the following is not meant by being “morally responsible” for an action?

a. I performed the action.

b. I did not perform the action.

c. I performed the action knowingly.

d. I performed the action willingly. 

41. Which of the following is an excusing condition that has to do with having only one possible action that I can perform?

a. Lack of control

b. External coercion

c. The absence of alternatives

d. Internal coercion

42. If I fainted and in the process of fainting, knocked over a lamp, which started a fire, which sort of excusing condition would limit my moral responsibility for the fire?

a. Internal coercion

b. External coercion

c. The absence of alternatives

d. Lack of control

43. On the view of this sort of capitalism, the function of government is to preserve the peace and to adjudicate disputes among those engaged in business transactions.

a. State capitalism

b. Socialism

c Totalitarianism

d Laissez-faire capitalism

44. Which of the following economic systems did not exist prior to the industrial revolution?

a. Feudalism

b. Totalitarianism

c. Capitalism

d. Democracy

45. Socialism is commonly, and erroneously, often confused with which of the following?

a. Communism

b. Capitalism

c. Feudalism

d. None of the above.

46. Antitrust legislation is an example of which of the following?

a. Control of economic cycles

b. Correction of unfair tendencies and of market failures

c. Development of a welfare safety net

d. Taxation

47. The restriction of multinationals from lobbying against reforms or laws that protect workers or consumers is an expression of which norm?

a. Respect the laws of a host country.

b. Do no intentional direct harm.

c. Respect the human rights of workers.

d. Promote the development of just background institutions internally.

48. Which of the following is the general obligation derived from the system of free enterprise that holds that parties must be able to count on the actions of other agents with whom they interact?

a. The obligation to do no harm

b. The obligation to live up to the contracts into which one enters freely

c. The obligation to be fair in the transactions in which it engages

d. The obligation not to undermine the freedom and values of the system

49. Which of the following is not true about the moral responsibilities of management?

a. Management is responsible to the workers.

b. Management is responsible to the board.

c. Management is responsible to maximize profits.

d. Management is responsible to the shareholders.

50. Which of the following was a result of the Enron failure?

a. The Rescue Bill

b. The Employee Compensation Act

c. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act

d. The Corporate Democracy Act

51. Which of the following was an employee complaint in the Enron case?

a. At the same time top executives were selling their stock, the same executives were

encouraging employees to buy the stock.

b. During the period of the stock’s collapse, Enron employees were encouraged to sell

their stocks.

c. While top executives were buying stock in the company, they were encouraging

employees to sell their stocks.

d. Top management was encouraging employees to hold their stocks because they felt the

stock would rebound.

52. Which of the following is a moral basis for disclosure of corporate information?

a. Each person has the right to know those actions of others that could benefit him.

b. Each person has the right to any information about a company he desires.

c. Each person has the right to enter a transaction fairly and thus is required to inform

others of his intent.

d. Each person has the right to know those actions of others that will serious and

adversely affect him.

53. Martha Stewart was charged with which of the following?

a. Making an insider trade

b. Lying in connection with making an alleged insider trade

c. Failing to disclose the financial position of her company

d. Obstructing justice by not providing proper documentation of workplace safety

54. In the Diamond Shamrock and Occidental Petroleum Corporation deal, which of the following

best describes the actions of Ivan Boesky and Michael Milken?

a. They shared inside information with intent to make a significant profit, but because of

actions that neither foresaw, they lost money.

b. They shared inside information with the intent to make significant profit, but were

found out and thus doomed the deal.

c. They traded inside information with intent to make significant profit, and, after the deal

went through, both made substantial profits.

d. They traded insider information with intent to make significant profit, but decided that

it was improper and so did not take advantage of the information.

55. At its height, the compensation of top executives at large companies was, on average, how

much higher than the pay of the average worker?

a. 7 times greater

b. 20 times greater

c. Over 700 times greater

d. Over 300 times greater

56. What is the term that refers to compensation given the family of a CEO in the event that he

dies in office?

a. The golden coffin

b. The golden parachute

c. The golden egg

d. The golden will

57. Until Ben Cohen retired as CEO of Ben & Jerry’s, the cap on executive pay was which of the

following?

a. Twenty times that of the average worker

b. Seven times that of the lowest paid worker

c. Fourteen times that of the average worker

d. Fifty times that of the lowest paid worker

58. What is the first step in the assessment of safety?

a. Deciding how much safety is demanded with respect to a particular product or activity

b. Determining how much safety is attainable and how to attain it in a given endeavor

c. Ascertaining whether a particular instance of a product or activity comes up to

standards of safety

d. Lowering the level of risk until it is found, by the ordinary person, to be acceptable

59. What is the second step in the assessment of safety?

a. Deciding how much safety is demanded with respect to a particular product or activity

b. Determining how much safety is attainable and how to attain it in a given endeavor

c. Ascertaining whether a particular instance of a product or activity comes up to

standards of safety

d. Lowering the level of risk until it is found, by the ordinary person, to be acceptable

60. What is the third step in the assessment of safety?

a. Deciding how much safety is demanded with respect to a particular product or activity

b. Determining how much safety is attainable and how to attain it in a given endeavor

c. Ascertaining whether a particular instance of a product or activity comes up to

standards of safety

d. Lowering the level of risk until it is found, by the ordinary person, to be acceptable

61. Which step in the assessment of safety is a technical question?

a. Deciding how much safety is demanded with respect to a particular product or activity

b. Determining how much safety is attainable and how to attain it in a given endeavor

c. Ascertaining whether a particular instance of a product or activity comes up to

standards of safety

d. Deciding who will experience the risk

62. Which step in the assessment of safety involves a question of acceptable risk?

a. Deciding how much safety is demanded with respect to a particular product or activity

b. Determining how much safety is attainable and how to attain it in a given endeavor

c. Ascertaining whether a particular instance of a product or activity comes up to

standards of safety

d. Deciding who will experience the risk

63. Which of the following is a problem with strict liability?

a. Manufacturers are given greater incentive to make their products safer.

b. The company is in the best position to fix a defect in its product.

c. A company has a “deep pocket,” and so is best able to accept the cost of harm.

d. No company can foresee all of the misuses of its product.

64. Which of the following is an example of preventing pollution at its source?

a. Reimbursing those harmed for the harm done

b. Disposing of the pollution in an appropriate way

c. Not allowing the pollution to develop

d. Properly creating a “paper trace” to track pollution

65. All of the following may result from whistle-blowing cases EXCEPT:

a. Most individuals are fired

b. Individuals are blackballed in the industry

c. Individuals may be shunted at promotion time

d. The possibility of promotion

66. Where does tradition with the corporate community tend to place the burden of justification in

a whistle-blowing case?

a. On the whistle-blower’s co-workers who should support the whistle-blower

b. On the company as a whole

c. On the employee blowing the whistle

d. On the corporation’s senior management and corporate attorneys

67. Which of the following conditions is necessary for whistle-blowing to be morally permissible, but not morally obligatory?

a. The firm will do serious and considerable harm to employees or to the public.

b. The whistle-blower has documented evidence that would convince a reasonable,

impartial observer that one’s view of the situation is correct, and that the company’s

product poses a serious danger to the public.

c. The employee has good reason to believe that by going public, the necessary changes

will be brought about.

d. The whistle-blower has reason to believe that he/she will be seen as failing to be loyal

to the company.

68. Whistle-blowing is often thought to indicate the falsity of which common myth?

a. The Myth of Stakeholder Interest

b. The Myth of Amoral Business

c. The Myth of Moral Business

d. The Myth of Shareholder Interest

69. Which of the following conditions is necessary for whistle-blowing to be morally obligatory?

a. The employee has exhausted the internal procedures and possibilities within the firm,

maybe even to the board of directors.

b. The employee has good reason to believe that by going public, the necessary changes

will be brought about.

c. The firm will do serious and considerable harm to employees or to the public.

d. The employee has reported the serious threat to his/her immediate supervisor.

70. Which of the following describe “personal whistle-blowing”?

a. Morally permitted, but not morally required

b. Morally obligatory

c. Morally forbidden

d. Morally irrelevant

71. One might argue that attempts by the government to limit an individual’s of tobacco or alcohol is an example of which of the following?

a. Manipulation

b. Coercion

c. Fairness

d. Paternalism

72. Which are the only two developed nations that allow direct-to-consumer advertising of

pharmaceutical drugs?

a. United States and Great Britain

b. United States and New Zealand

c. United States and Germany

d. United States and Canada

73. Which of the following is not a way in which a company undercuts the competition afforded by another unethically?

a. Pricing one’s product lower than one’s costs, thus making the competition operate at a

loss.

b. Buying up competitor companies to eliminate competition.

c. Targeting products in one area to subsidize losses in another, thus driving out the

competition.

d. By producing a better product and coming to dominate the field.

74. When, in the event of a civil emergency like a hurricane, merchants raise prices beyond what

is considered a fair or reasonable price, the practice is called which of the following?

a. Price gouging

b. Price fixing

c. Price markups

d. Price jobbing

75. Which of the following is a way in which secret bidding tends to produce fairer bids?

a. If the process were open, a firm that could make a profit at a price considerably less

than the competition might bid up the price to put pressure on that competitor.

b. If the competition were open, a firm might start out at a high bid to scare others off

from bidding.

c. If the process were open, a firm that could make a profit at a price considerably less

than the competition would make a bid only just enough less to win the contract.

d. If the competition were open, firms might get into a bidding war for the contract.

76. Which of the following is the argument offered against direct marketing in the form of junk

mail?

a. It is a waste and misuse of paper, adding to the depletion of forests and overtaxing

landfills.

b. It is an invasion of privacy.

c. It is time consuming and intrusive.

d. It is a significant inconvenience because of the considerable volume.

77. Which of the following is the argument offered against direct marketing in the form of spam?

a. It is a waste and misuse of paper, adding to the depletion of forests and overtaxing

landfills.

b. It is an invasion of privacy.

c. It is time consuming and intrusive.

d. It is a significant inconvenience because of the considerable volume.

78. Which of the following is the argument offered against direct marketing in the form of direct

phone solicitation?

a. It is a waste and misuse of paper, adding to the depletion of forests and overtaxing

landfills.

b. It is time consuming and intrusive.

c. It is an invasion of privacy.

d. It is a significant inconvenience because of the considerable volume.

79. Which of the following is true about the rights and obligations of employers in the

employment-at-will doctrine?

a. Employers are free to hire whomever they choose but must give just cause for firing

them.

b. Employers must hire the best qualified person for the job and must give just cause for

firing them.

c. Employers are free to hire whomever they choose and to fire them whenever they

choose.

d. Employers must fire the best qualified person for the job but can fire them whenever

they choose.

80. Which of the following is true about affirmative action?

a. Qualified women and minority members cannot be given preference on the basis

of sex or race.

b. Affirmative action justifies hiring unqualified women or minority members in

preference to men.

c. Preferential hiring is a mandatory way of making adequate progress toward achieving

affirmative-action goals.

d. Qualified women and minority members can morally be given preference in order to

achieve affirmative action goals.

81. Which of the following is not a criticism of the employment-at-will doctrine?

a. The relationship is not symmetrical because the employee can set the conditions of

employment because it is his or her labor that is purchased.

b. The relationship is not symmetrical because ordinary workers must work to get the

wherewithal to live, and so he is both forced to work and lives in fear of losing his job

if he has no contract guaranteeing him a secure position.

c. The relationship is not symmetrical because ordinary workers are not free to set the

conditions of employment they way the employer is free to set the conditions for the

potential employee.

d. The relationship is not symmetrical because the employee cannot work for whatever

company he or she chooses, but is limited by the openings available and by the choice

or choices offered.

82. Workers have all of the following rights EXCEPT:

a. Vacations

b. Promotion

c. Rest periods

d. Workdays of reasonable length

83. Which of the following is a utilitarian argument against discrimination?

a. People are treated as members of class with a certain characteristic, not as persons.

They are not ends in themselves, but because of that characteristic, they are denied

equal treatment and respect.

b. Since the least advantaged in a society would be better off in a nondiscriminatory

society than in one that discriminates, the rational person would see that

nondiscrimination is morally preferable.

c. The dominant class has a desire to maintain its superiority and its class prerogatives.

d. Systematic discrimination produces a class of people who are arguably treated unjustly.

Other groups in the society will also have cause to worry about whether they will be the

next group to be discriminated against. On the whole, more harm than good is done.

84. Which of the following is a Kantian argument against discrimination?

a. Since the least advantaged in a society would be better off in a nondiscriminatory

society than in one that discriminates, the rational person would see that

nondiscrimination is morally preferable.

b. People are treated as members of class with a certain characteristic, not as persons.

They are not ends in themselves, but because of that characteristic, they are denied

equal treatment and respect.

c. The dominant class has a desire to maintain its superiority and its class prerogatives.

d. Systematic discrimination produces a class of people who are arguably treated unjustly.

Other groups in the society will also have cause to worry about whether they will be the

next group to be discriminated against. On the whole, more harm than good is done.

85. Which of the following is a Rawlsian argument against discrimination?

a. Since the least advantaged in a society would be better off in a nondiscriminatory

society than in one that discriminates, the rational person would see that

nondiscrimination is morally preferable.

b. People are treated as members of class with a certain characteristic, not as persons.

They are not ends in themselves, but because of that characteristic, they are denied

equal treatment and respect.

c. The dominant class has a desire to maintain its superiority and its class prerogatives.

d. Systematic discrimination produces a class of people who are arguably treated unjustly.

Other groups in the society will also have cause to worry about whether they will be the

next group to be discriminated against. On the whole, more harm than good is done.

86. Which of the following is an example of tangible property?

a. Land, buildings, and additions on the land

b. Money, stocks, bonds, financial securities

c. Expressions of ideas, inventions, discoveries

d. Some physical item that we can touch, though not usually land and buildings

87. Which of the following is an example of intangible property?

a. Land, buildings, and additions on the land

b. Money, stocks, bonds, financial securities

c. Expressions of ideas, inventions, discoveries

d. Some physical item that we can touch, though not usually land and buildings

88. Which of the following is an example of real property?

a. Land, buildings, and additions on the land

b. Money, stocks, bonds, financial securities

c. Expressions of ideas, inventions, discoveries

d. Some physical item that we can touch, though not usually land and buildings

89. Which of the following is an example of intellectual property?

a. Land, buildings, and additions on the land

b. Money, stocks, bonds, financial securities

c. Expressions of ideas, inventions, discoveries

d. Some physical item that we can touch, though not usually land and buildings

90. From an ethical perspective, which is the proper response with regards to the length of a

copyright?

a. Ethics cannot provide a specific period.

b. The longer contemporary period is better than the shorter historical period.

c. The shorter historical period is better than the longer contemporary period.

d. Both the shorter historical period and the longer contemporary period are best for their

time periods.

91. What can ethical reflection tell us about the proper length of a copyright period?

a. No particular length is justified.

b. The period should vary with the quality of the work.

c. Some length or other is justified and an indefinitely long period is too long.

d. Whatever legal definition of the period’s length is appropriate.

92. Which of the following is not covered by the doctrine of fair use?

a. Scholarly criticism and scholarship

b. Research

c. News reporting

d. Using copies instead of assigning a text

93. Which of the following is not an instance of privileged communication?

a. Patient-doctor confidentiality

b. Teacher-student confidentiality

c. Priest-penitent confidentiality

d. Lawyer-client confidentiality

94. Which of the following is an example of screening information that is provided for one

purpose to see if new useful information can be derived about customers?

a. Data mining

b. Hacking

c. Cracking

d. Monitoring

95. To which of the following is email legally comparable?

a. Regular mail

b. Telephone use

c. Certified mail

d. None of these.

96. Accessing pornographic sites while at work can constitute sexual harassment for which of the

following reasons?

a. It can be offensive to coworkers.

b. It can take too much time away from work activities.

c. It can produce a sexually hostile environment.

d. It can suggest a quid pro quo to coworkers.

97. Which of the following is true about the right to privacy with relation to the Internet?

a. The right to privacy is ethically covered, but not legally.

b. The right to privacy is legally covered, but not ethically.

c. The right to privacy is neither ethically nor legally covered.

d. The right to privacy is both legally and ethically covered.

98. The introduction of the computer into business raises new problems. Of which of those new

problems is the use of viruses, worms, and spam?

a. Computer crime

b. Computers and corporate responsibility

c. Computers and privacy

d. The changing nature of work

99. The issue of the availability of personal information is a problem of which of the following?

a. Computer crime

b. Computers and corporate responsibility

c. Computers and privacy

d. The changing nature of work

100. Which of the following can be true or false and tends to obscure the issue and location of

truth?

a. Facts

b. Information

c. Data

d. Mistakes

Text:
Business Ethics
Seventh Edition, 2010
ISBN-10: 0205731937
Richard DeGeorge
Pearson/Prentice Hall